can't stand doing and can't stand to do

[Rustamsher]

Hello Alan,

Since I began to conduct a little research into 'Gerund and Infinitive', I have been learning this issue thoroughly and I'm still doing research. :-) My observation (through many grammar books and Net pages) is as follows:
So many American (English) linguistics say that the verb can't stand is followed by either a gerund or an infinitive. Mainly British (English) grammarians say that it is usually followed by a gerund. So, the either grammatical structure is in practice in the USA, while the gerund requirement of the pattern "can't stand + doing/to do" takes precedence mainly in the UK.

Is my inference correct?

Thanks.

[Alan]

Yes, I would say so!