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English grammar questions, answered by Alan

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azz
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Post by azz » Tue Oct 12, 2004 2:48 am

"They all didn't have coats."

Can't this sentence have two meanings:
1) None of them had a coat.
2) Not all of them had coats.

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Alan
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Post by Alan » Tue Oct 12, 2004 1:36 pm

No, it is equivalent to #1 only.
An alternative to #2 with 'all' would be

They didn't ALL have coats.

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