English grammar questions, answered by Alan
Moderator: Alan
Hela
Top Contributor
Posts: 557 Joined: Tue Jan 06, 2004 6:59 pm
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by Hela » Sat Dec 04, 2004 2:49 pm
Dear teacher,
Same question as is "past perfect 1":
Would you please tell me if there is a difference in meaning between the following sentences? If any one of them is wrong would you please tell me why?
a) He refused to go until he had seen all the pictures.
b) He had refused to go until he saw all the pictures.
c) He refused to go until he saw all the pictures.
= He did not go until he saw all the pictures. (?)
d) He had not gone until he had seen all the pictures.
e) He had not gone until he saw all the pictures.
Best regards,
Hela
Alan
Teacher/Moderator
Posts: 15257 Joined: Mon Dec 29, 2003 7:56 pm
Status: Teacher of English
Location: Japan
Post
by Alan » Sun Dec 05, 2004 12:18 pm
Evidenly 'refused to go' is semantically different from 'did not go/had not gone'.
The fact of failing to do something is not tantamount to refusing to do it!
Hela
Top Contributor
Posts: 557 Joined: Tue Jan 06, 2004 6:59 pm
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by Hela » Sun Dec 05, 2004 12:28 pm
Dear Alan ,
Thank you for your answer. I understand now that both sentences do not have exactly the same meaning.
Could you tell me please if all the sentences above are grammatically correct? That is, is my use of the past perfect correct in all sentences?
Thank you for your help.
Hela
Alan
Teacher/Moderator
Posts: 15257 Joined: Mon Dec 29, 2003 7:56 pm
Status: Teacher of English
Location: Japan
Post
by Alan » Sun Dec 05, 2004 12:33 pm
All are possible.
Hela
Top Contributor
Posts: 557 Joined: Tue Jan 06, 2004 6:59 pm
Post
by Hela » Sun Dec 05, 2004 12:36 pm
Dear Alan ,
Thank you for your reply.
Have a nice day,
Hela