Hi!
I'm aware of the modal character of 'might' verb and that it should be used with 'have' instead of 'has'. But shouldn't I place the 'has' form when I use 'have' in 'possession' meaning?
For example: ' I want to be his friend in spite of all the downsides he might has (might have?)'.
Thank you in advance,
Sincerely,
Dmitry
Might have/Might has when 'have' = 'possession'
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Re: Might have/Might has when 'have' = 'possession'
'Modal auxiliary verbs may sound difficult but in fact they're easy. They are invariable (no conjugation). And the main verb is always the "bare infinitive" (the infinitive without "to").'
from: http://www.englishclub.com/grammar/verbs-modals.htm
I want to be his friend in spite of all the downsides he might have.
from: http://www.englishclub.com/grammar/verbs-modals.htm
I want to be his friend in spite of all the downsides he might have.