Preposition after 'averse'

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kstrch
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Preposition after 'averse'

Post by kstrch » Wed Apr 12, 2017 6:50 am

'He is averse to smoking.'
Is it correct? Averse generally takes the preposition 'to' but here 'to' is following by a gerund.

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Alan
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Re: Preposition after 'averse'

Post by Alan » Sun Apr 16, 2017 1:21 am

Yes, perfectly.
No surprise there: gerunds can almost always be substituted for nouns.

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