'He is averse to smoking.'
Is it correct? Averse generally takes the preposition 'to' but here 'to' is following by a gerund.
Preposition after 'averse'
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kstrch
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Re: Preposition after 'averse'
Yes, perfectly.
No surprise there: gerunds can almost always be substituted for nouns.
No surprise there: gerunds can almost always be substituted for nouns.