"I've seen it work" versus "I've seen it works"
Moderator: Alan
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Rodrigo
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"I've seen it work" versus "I've seen it works"
Is there a rule of grammar which determines which of these is the more correct ?
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Alan
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Re: "I've seen it work" versus "I've seen it works"
Both are possible, although the structures they represent are quite different.
I've seen it work.
represents the structure [see/hear/...smb. DO smth.], whereby a verb (do) is governed in the infinitive by a verb of perception.
(Note that, depending on meaning, [see/hear/...smb. DOING smth.] is also possible.)
I've seen it works.
, an elliptical form of
I've seen THAT it works.
, on the other hand, represents the much simpler, more common structure [VB + nominal clause] (equivalent to 'say that...', 'know that...' etc.).
Semantically, the difference is less marked, but still perceptible. The first sentence refers to a physical act of viewing (only), while the second refers primarily to the establishment (via physical viewing) of a fact (i.e. that fact that it works).
I've seen it work.
represents the structure [see/hear/...smb. DO smth.], whereby a verb (do) is governed in the infinitive by a verb of perception.
(Note that, depending on meaning, [see/hear/...smb. DOING smth.] is also possible.)
I've seen it works.
, an elliptical form of
I've seen THAT it works.
, on the other hand, represents the much simpler, more common structure [VB + nominal clause] (equivalent to 'say that...', 'know that...' etc.).
Semantically, the difference is less marked, but still perceptible. The first sentence refers to a physical act of viewing (only), while the second refers primarily to the establishment (via physical viewing) of a fact (i.e. that fact that it works).