no longer subject to...

English grammar questions, answered by Alan

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navit
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no longer subject to...

Post by navit »

The article concludes that much of the explosion in corporate profits is made possible by market consolidation: giant companies no longer subject to the pressures of inflation.

Is the above sentence grammatical?

I think it should be: "... giant companies no longer being subject to the pressures of inflation."

Source:

https://www.rawstory.com/big-business-democrats/



Gratefully,
Navi
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Alan
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Re: no longer subject to...

Post by Alan »

Yes, 'being' or 'which are' is clearly implied.
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