1) For that first year and a half, the days had gone moderately well, and
after Mamma and Pop were both in bed, Gene and I might each get a fair
night's sleep. He went to bed late and I got up early, but it was manageable
until...
Source:
https://tinyurl.com/23p5wx6s
https://www.google.com/books/edition/Re ... frontcover
Is '1 grammatical?
Does 'might' express possibility in the past?
Or does it mean that they did each get a fair night's sleep?
Maybe this usage is acceptable in certain dialects of English. It seems incorrect to me.
2) In those days, I might have four beers with my meal.
Is '2' grammatical?
The intended meaning is that that was possible, that was
something I did sometimes.
Gratefully,
Navi
might get a fair night's sleep
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Re: might get a fair night's sleep
Yes, this use of 'might' - reflecting its origin as a past tense form - is certainly possible, although relatively rare outside the confines of a subordinate clause.
The second, referring to an habitual past possibility, is somewhat more natural than the first.
The second, referring to an habitual past possibility, is somewhat more natural than the first.