struggle with interpretation

[ladyfirsttdbcn]

"Any other government signatory to this Protocol shall make
effective such provisional application of the General Agreement, on or
after 1 January 1948, upon the expiration of thirty days from the day of
signature of this Protocol on behalf of such Government."

Interpretation of the text:
Another gov who hasn't been a party of this agreement will be a party after these 2 following conditions were met:
1. It has signed the agreement
2. It would be a party no sooner than 1 january 1948. Eg: If it signed the agreement on 30 november 1947 then it has to wait till 1 january 1948 to make the signatory effective. However, differently in another case, if it signed the agreement on 30 december 1947, then the date that the signator comes into effect will be 30 January 1948 ( 30 days after the signing- date)

Am I wrong as interpreting the text this way? Does that make any sense? Thanks for help

[Josef Essberger]

party TO an agreement, not OF an agreement

My interpretation, without further context and evidence, is that a gov. signing the Protocol will become a party to the Protocol on signature.

That gov. will then make effective "such provisional application of the General Agreement" (whatever that is - may not be the same as the Protocol, we don't know because not enough context) 30 days after signing but not earlier than 1 January 1948.