a. The members of this party claim to know this subject well, but when you ask them a question, every one of them has nothing to say.
b. The members of this party all claim to know this subject well, but when you ask them a question, all of them have nothing to say.
c. The members of this party claim to know this subject well, but when you ask them a question, every one of them doesn't have anything to say.
d. The members of this party all claim to know this subject well, but when you ask them a question, all of them don't have anything to say.
Are the above sentences grammatically correct?
I don't think they are good sentences. I'd use 'none of them has anything to say'; but I think (c) and (d) might be used informally.
Many thanks.
none of them
Moderator: Alan
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Re: none of them
I would say rather that (a) and (b) would pass muster conversationally, but the only fully correct standard form would be:
...none of them has/have anything to say.
...none of them has/have anything to say.